criminal damage

From the Home Office:
"Criminal damage refers to crimes where a person intentionally or recklessly destroys or causes damage to another person's property. Criminal damage, often referred to as vandalism, includes graffiti, arson and other forms of damage to property, including vehicles"
 
however from personal experience......dont ever expect the cps to prosecute because they dont!
i saw the turd who broke my car window as did a few others but there was "not enough evidence" to proceed to court with
 
Not true - but don't let me be the one to challenge a stereotype.

Criminal damage is damage to property, usually owned by another, done intentionally or by acting recklessly where a reasonable person might consider that damage would be caused. It could be transferred, so if you were aiming to throw a stone at one greenhouse, but missed and smashed another it would still be criminal damage.

There are separate charges for values of damage, as lower values can be dealt with by the Magistrates Court, higher values and arson, which is a kind of damage, could be dealt with in the Crown Court.

Cases do fail, usually based around establishing intent or recklessness, belief in ownership of property and the right to cause damage, or continuity and quality of evidence.
 
mother hen you are great thanks.
so if someone damaged somethin intentionally that didnt belong to them but they gained something from this would that still be classed as criminal damage?
 
It doesn't matter whether it is done for gain, out of spite or just in high spirits. It is all criminal damage - but you had better pm all the circumstances to me if you want a definitive answer
 
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