What would happen....

laura7981

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If say I bought a pony in good faith and was told it had never had laminitis, so I insure pony as normal only for it to get laminitis, and when i claim for vet fees etc, the insurance company do a vet history check and discover pony has had it before I owned it... My question is would they pay out for treatment or not ?
I hope that makes sense.
Christmas cake to all who reply :-)
 
No if insurance company have it on file. It would of been excluded from policy. However if pony has NEVER had it before I expect they would.
For example,my boy had a sarcoid and now its excluded from his policy.
 
An insurance contract is a contract of utmost good faith, so if you didn't know and had no reasonable way of knowing at the time of the laminitis, then you have a case to argue.

Laminitis is notifiable by the seller, so you should have been told. So saying, LL had had it but the seller didn't tell me :rolleyes:
 
Yes one should be told if the pony has had laminitis so you can take preccaustions. I put a pony on loan in 1989 and I made sure the people (friends of a friend) knew said pony had had it and they restricted her grazing.
You can ask the owners.
 
If you asked the owners and they said that it hadn't had laminitis, then it's possible that the insurance company would pay out as you had no way of knowing that it had had laminitis from the questions you asked to the owner. My horse had a fractured tooth and abcess shortly after I purchased her. When it was eventually discovered, the vet said that it could have been there for several months or even a year which was since before I bought her. I explained all this to the insurance company and they were fine about it - they said that as I had no way of knowing this was the case when I bought her, then she was covered and they paid the full £5000 due to it being a complicated case.
 
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