Dry Rot
Well-Known Member
Could be that she has genuinely changed her mind, but if so then she has still benefited from free schooling livery and should still be paying you for that.
Let's try to look at this problem dispassionately and examine the legal issues involved. I am not a lawyer and I am sure their are better qualified people on here, but, what the heck, this is a discussion forum!
The agreement was that the OP should take the horse for a short period so she could decide whether to buy. There was no agreement that the OP should school the horse and, I assume, it was implied, if not stated, that she would pay all costs of the livery. How can the OP now expect to be paid for a service (schooling) that was not contracted for?
Both the seller and OP have a right to "change their minds" at any stage up to the point where the OP's offer is accepted. All the parties have agreed to is a period of assessment before a contract of sale has been made.
The seller has now decided to withdraw and the horse is no longer for sale. She has a perfect right to do this. A price has been discussed -- but not agreed to as it is subject to the OP's assessment of the SI problem.
Unless the contract gave her the right to change her mind, I would set out a reasonable invoice for the costs you have wasted through her breach of contract (including a reasonable allocation for your time) stating that from now on you are not schooling any further, and will be charging £x per day to cover your costs for keep.
Where is it stated that the seller has made her mind up about anything except that the OP can assess whether the horse is suitable? Where has it been stated that the seller contracted with the OP for the schooling? She (OP) merely has the horse on loan so she can make an assessment about the SI. There is no need to school a horse to do that!
Don't let her remove the horse until she has settled the invoice.
Then the OP should expect a writ for detinue (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Detinue), the illegal retention of another person property. The OP did work on the horse on her own initiative. If it was a mare and she (OP) had decided to get it covered without any reference to the seller, would the seller also be liable for the stud fee? No, she might rightly face an action for damages!
I wouldn't offer to buy it outright now unless you are prepared to live with the sweet itch as it may well be an opportunistic way of making you buy before you have witnessed the extent of the problem.
I agree.
A written (or verbal) contract to buy *is* binding, regardless of whether money has changed hands, and although you would not be able to force her to go through with the sale in courts you would certainly be entitled to fair compensation for costs you have incurred acting in reliance on the contract.
The contract is that she has the horse for assessment prior to making an offer. It is an agreement for the OP to have time to make an inspection of the horse, no more, no less. The fact that a price has been discussed is irrelevant as there is no contract of sale and either side may withdraw up until there is offer and acceptance. That is what the seller has now done and it sounds as if negotiations need to start afresh.