bex1984
Well-Known Member
This is a bit complicated, so bear with me...
My mum owns a house in Wales, and 10 years ago she bought a 1.2 acre paddock attached to the house which she was aware came with a 'tenant' who claimed he had rights to the land - he and his family have been using it for grazing for decades.
At the time the plan was to give the 'tenant' 0.2 acres, and he agreed he'd then give up his rights to the main remaining acre. However, for various unrelated reasons they never proceeded with this deal.
My mum is now hoping to sell the house, complete with the paddock, so she approached the 'tenant' again, to offer him the 0.2 acre - he has said he also wants a not insubstantial sum of money.
The 'tenant' has never paid my mum any rent, or had any contract, or used it continously (last time I visited it was empty and overgrown - he may well be using it now he knows she wants to sell though).
The last thing my mum wants to do is get into a battle over this - she would happily give him the 0.2 acre regardless of whether he has any rights to the land (as a goodwill gesture), but she really does not want to pay him the money he is asking for (she doesn't have it anyway!).
So - does anyone have any idea whether he does actually have any right to the land? Can he demand this money? any thoughts?
My mum owns a house in Wales, and 10 years ago she bought a 1.2 acre paddock attached to the house which she was aware came with a 'tenant' who claimed he had rights to the land - he and his family have been using it for grazing for decades.
At the time the plan was to give the 'tenant' 0.2 acres, and he agreed he'd then give up his rights to the main remaining acre. However, for various unrelated reasons they never proceeded with this deal.
My mum is now hoping to sell the house, complete with the paddock, so she approached the 'tenant' again, to offer him the 0.2 acre - he has said he also wants a not insubstantial sum of money.
The 'tenant' has never paid my mum any rent, or had any contract, or used it continously (last time I visited it was empty and overgrown - he may well be using it now he knows she wants to sell though).
The last thing my mum wants to do is get into a battle over this - she would happily give him the 0.2 acre regardless of whether he has any rights to the land (as a goodwill gesture), but she really does not want to pay him the money he is asking for (she doesn't have it anyway!).
So - does anyone have any idea whether he does actually have any right to the land? Can he demand this money? any thoughts?